helloo everyone,
this subject has been troubling me for a while after i watched an episode of a series set in the olden days
After collecting information from several sources and discussing my opinion with many people, I came up with the theory that about two-hundred years ago, and in some cases nowadays, a husband rapes his wife or in other words ,has intercourse with her against her will.
I will explain how I came up with this theory:
First of all, in the past, most females were married around the age of 15 when they were still very young. Add to that, the story of the relationship between a man and a woman was something never spoken of and something highly restricted.
Therefore, a 15 year old was unlikely to have any knowledge of intercourse. It is reasonable to expect that a girl was introduced to all this information before she is married by her mother. However, it is unexpected that the mother will discuss the emotional parts of the story but will limit her talk to the necessary details.
Another part of the story is that girls were not asked thier opinion about whome they would like to marry or when they would like to get married, it was usually the decision of the father alone who his daughter was going to marry. This means that the chances of the girl marrying someone she loved or knew before marriage were very minimal.
Please imagine the picture with me, A young girl is married to a man she never knew or loved, and on the wedding night, she is left alone in a room with a man she hardly knows (let alone loves) who wants to do what his nature is telling him to do and has no time or care to try to explain to her what he is going to do. And so he does intercourse with her while she is refusing partly because she is scared of the unknown and partly because she does not know this man.
I think that this is called rape even if the man is her husband, becuase rape is not just about whether the man is her husband or not, rape is about a man forcing himslef on a woman's most sacred part.